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Atelectasis is loss of lung volume due to decreased aeration. Atelectasis is synonymous with collapse.
Direct signs of atelectasis:
Indirect signs of atelectasis:
Elevation of the diaphragm.
Rib crowding on the side with volume loss. Mediastinal shift to the side with volume loss.
Overinflation of adjacent or contralateral lobes. Hilar displacement.
Obstructive
Relaxation
Adhesive
Cicatricial
The differential diagnosis of chronic consolidation includes:
Ground glass opacification (GGO): is histologically due to either partial filling of the alveoli (by blood, pus, water, or cells), alveolar wall thickening, or reduced aeration of alveoli (atelectasis).
The differential diagnosis for ground glass in a central distribution includes:
Peripheral ground glass or consolidation:
Infectious causes of centrilobular nodules include:
The two most common inflammatory causes of centrilobular nodules include
Causes of perilymphatic nodules include:
Causes of random nodules:
The differential diagnosis of basal-predominant fibrotic change includes:
Atypical mycobacteria infection
"Hot-tub" lung
The radiographic severity of pulmonary edema typically progresses through three stages:
The vascular pedicle is the transverse width of the upper mediastinum. The right border of the vascular pedicle is the interface of the superior vena cava (SVC) and the right mainstem bronchus. The left border of the vascular pedicle is the lateral border of the takeoff of the subclavian from the aorta. The vascular pedicle width is normally 63 and >70 mm have been proposed as cutoffs) on sequential supine AP ICU-type chest radiographs generally correlates with increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (>18 mm Hg) and fluid overload.
The endotracheal tube tip should be approximately 4-6 cm above the carina with the neck in neutral alignment. However, in situations with low pulmonary compliance (e.g., ARDS), a tip position closer to the carina may reduce barotrauma.
The tip of a central venous catheter, including a PICC, should be in lower SVC or the cavoatrial junction. Azygos malposition is seen in approximately 1% of bedside-placed PICCs. Azygos malposition is associated with increased risk of venous perforation and catheter-associated thrombosis, and repositioning is recommended.
Definition of pulmonary hypertension: Clinically, the term pulmonary hypertension is used to encompass both pulmonary arterial and pulmonary venous hypertension.
Overview of pulmonary hypertension classification: The classification in widest use in the radiology literature is the hemodynamic division of
General imaging of pulmonary hypertension:
PAH secondary to pulmonary veno-occlusive disease is caused by fibrotic obliteration of the pulmonary veins and venules. Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease may be idiopathic but is associated with pregnancy, drugs (especially bleomycin), and bone marrow transplant.
Peritoneum: The peritoneum is a thin membrane consisting of a single layer of mesothelial cells that are supported by subserosal fat cells, lymphatic cells, and white blood cells.
Mesentery
Genitourinary imaging
Retroperitoneum
Retroperitoneal disease
- Liposarcoma:
- Liposarcomas are a diverse group of neoplasms that make up the most common primary retroperitoneal tumors. 10-15% of all liposarcomas arise from the retroperitoneum.
- The most common type of liposarcoma is the well-differentiated group
- Retroperitoneal fibrosis:
Retroperitoneal fibrosis is a rare inflammatory disorder causing increased fibrotic deposition in the retroperitoneum, often leading to ureteral obstruction.Adrenal glands
Anatomy
- Adrenal cortex:
The adrenal cortex synthesizes the steroid hormones aldosterone, glucocorticoids, and androgens, which are all biochemical derivatives of cholesterol.- Adrenal medulla:
The adrenal medulla is the central portion of the adrenal gland and produces the catecholamines norepinephrine and epinephrine, which are derived from tyrosine.Biochemical approach to adrenal lesions
Adrenal hyperfunction
- Cushing syndrome:
is excess cortisol production from non-pituitary disease, such as idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal adenoma, or ectopic/paraneoplastic ACTH (e.g., from small cell lung cancer).- Cushing disease
is excess cortisol production driven by excessive pituitary ACTH.- Conn syndrome
is excess aldosterone production, most commonly from an adrenal adenoma, which causes hypertension and hypokalemia.- Adrenal cortical carcinoma
is a very rare adrenal malignancy that arises from the cortex and typically causes a disordered increase in all cortical adrenal hormones and precursors.- Pheochromocytoma
is a usually benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that causes an increase in catecholamines.Adrenal hypofunction
- Significant destruction of the adrenals is required to produce adrenal insufficiency.
Imaging of adrenal adenoma and the indeterminate adrenal mass
- Adrenal adenoma is a benign tumor of the adrenal cortex.
- An adrenal nodule attenuating ≤10 Hounsfield units (HU) can be reliably diagnosed as an adenoma with no further imaging or follow-up needed.
MRI adrenal imaging: Chemical shift imaging = in- and out-of-phase imaging
- Adenomas contain intracytoplasmic lipid due to steroid production. MRI is able to detect even a small amount of intracytoplasmic lipid that may be undetectable on CT by taking advantage of the fact that protons resonate at different frequencies in fat and in water.
- Chemical shift imaging consists of images obtained both in-phase and out-of-phase. When fat and water are contained within the same voxel, out-of-phase images show fat drop-out of signal because fat protons are more shielded and resonate at a slower frequency. Chemical shift imaging is based on T1 images.
- Adenomas suppress on out-of-phase images, while metastases generally do not.
- A short list of malignancies do contain intracytoplasmic lipid and thus would also lose signal on out-of-phase images:
- Well-differentiated adrenocortical carcinoma (very rare).
- Clear cell renal cell carcinomas metastatic to the adrenal gland.
- Hepatocellular carcinoma metastatic to the adrenal gland.
- Liposarcoma (typically a predominantly fatty mass that is rarely confused with adrenal adenoma).
CT Imaging: Adrenal washout CT
- Adrenal adenomas demonstrate more rapid contrast washout than metastases do.
Myelolipoma
- An adrenal myelolipoma is a benign neoplasm consisting of myeloid cells (i.e., erythrocyte precursors -- not "myo" as in muscle) and fat cells.
Adrenal cyst
- Adrenal cysts are uncommon but have imaging characteristics typical of cysts elsewhere (thin, smooth, nonenhancing wall, and water-attenuation internal contents)
Malignant (or potentially malignant) adrenal masses
- Pheochromocytoma: Potentially malignant:
Pheochromocytoma is a neoplasm of chromaffin cells, usually arising from the adrenal medulla. Pheochromocytoma may cause hypertension and episodic headaches/diaphoresis.- The "rule of 10's"
is a general rule characterizing the features of pheochromocytomas:
- 10% are extra-adrenal.
- 10% are bilateral.
- 10% are malignant.
- 10% are familial or syndromic.
- Pheochromocytoma
is associated with several syndromes:
- Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 2A and 2B: Typically bilateral intra-adrenal pheochromocytomas.
- von Hippel-Lindau.
- Neurofibromatosis type 1.
- Carney's triad (gastric leiomyosarcoma, pulmonary chondroma, and extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma).
- Adrenal cortical carcinoma:
Adrenal cortical carcinoma is a very rare malignancy- Metastasis:
Autopsy studies show adrenal metastases are present in >25% of patients with a known primary. Lung cancer and melanoma are the most common adrenal metastases.- Lymphoma:
Primary adrenal lymphoma is rare.Diffuse adrenal disorders
- Adrenal hyperplasia
is caused by prolonged stress response or ectopic ACTH secretion.- Adrenal hemorrhage:
can be spontaneous or due to anticoagulation. When secondary to anticoagulation, the hemorrhage typically occurs within the first few weeks of beginning anticoagulation. Hemorrhage involves the right adrenal gland more commonly than the left.- Adrenal calcification:
rarely causes adrenal hypofunction. Adrenal calcification can be due to Wegener granulomatosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, or old hemorrhage.Kidneys
Diagnostic approach to a renal mass
- A renal mass protocol CT consists of at least three phases of data acquisition, with each phase providing important information to aid in the diagnosis of a renal mass.
- Unenhanced phase:
Necessary as a baseline to quantify enhancement.- Nephrographic phase (100 second delay):
The nephrographic phase is the critical phase for evaluating for enhancement, comparing to the unenhanced images.- Pyelographic phase (15 minute delay; also called the excretory phase):
The pyelographic phase is helpful for problem solving and to diagnose potential mimics of cystic renal masses.Evaluating enhancement (CT and MRI)
- The presence of enhancement is the most important characteristic to distinguish between a benign and malignant non-fat-containing renal mass (a lesion containing intralesional fat is almost always a benign angiomyolipoma, even if it enhances).
- On CT:
- < 10 HU: No enhancement.
- 10-19 HU equivocal enhancement.
- >= 20 HU enhancement.
- On MRI:
- < 15% no enhancement.
- 15-15% equivocal enhancement.
- >=20% enhancement.
Solid renal masses
- Renal cell carcinoma (RCC):
- Clear cell
- Papillary RCC
- Chromophobe
- Collecting duct carcinoma
- Medullary carcinoma
- Staging of renal cell carcinoma
is based on the Robson system, which characterizes fascial extension and vascular/lymph node involvement. Stages I-III are usually resectable, although the surgical approach may need to be altered for venous invasion (stages IIIA and IIIC).
- Stage I:
Tumor confined to within the renal capsule.- Stage II:
Tumor extends out of the renal capsule but remains confined within Gerota's fascia.- Stage III:
Vascular and/or lymph node involvement.
- IIIA:
Renal vein involvement or IVC involvement.- IIIB:
Lymph node involvement.- IIIC:
Venous and lymph node involvement.- Stage IVA:
Tumor growth through Gerota's fascia;- Stage IVB:
Distant metastasis.- Angiomyolipoma (AML):
is the most common benign renal neoplasm- Oncocytoma:
Oncocytoma is the most commonly resected benign renal mass and has overlapping imaging findings with renal cell carcinoma.- Renal lymphoma:
- Primary renal lymphoma is rare
- Renal involvement of lymphoma has several patterns of disease: Multiple lymphomatous masses (most common pattern; seen in 50% of cases of renal lymphoma). Solitary renal mass. Diffuse lymphomatous infiltration, causing nephromegaly. Direct extension of retroperitoneal disease.
- Non-neoplastic solid renal masses:
When evaluating a potential renal mass, it's important to always consider that an apparent solid renal mass may represent a non-neoplastic lesion.
- Renal arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
- Renal pseudotumors
Syndromes with renal masses (all have increased risk of RCC)
- von Hippel-Lindau (VHL):
von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) is an autosomal dominant multiorgan syndrome caused by a mutation in the VHL tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3, which leads to cysts and neoplasms in multiple organs.- Birt-Hogg-Dube:
Tuberous sclerosis is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disease caused by a tumor suppressor gene mutation. It manifests clinically with seizures, developmental delay, and (mostly) benign tumors in multiple organ systems.Approach to a cystic renal mass
- Neoplastic differential of a cystic renal mass
- Cystic renal cell carcinoma.
Although renal cell carcinoma most commonly presents as a solid renal mass, it can also manifest as a cystic renal mass.- Multilocular cystic nephroma
is a benign cystic neoplasm with enhancing septa that occurs in a bimodal age distribution in baby boys and middle-aged women.- Mixed epithelial and stromal tumor (MEST)
is a benign neoplasm composed of epithelial and mesenchymal elements, typically found in middle-aged women. MEST may appear as either a solid or cystic mass.Non-neoplastic differential of a cystic renal mass
- Renal abscess
is a contained purulent collection within the kidney.- Hemorrhagic renal cyst,
which will not have any enhancing component.Role of MRI in evaluation of a complex cystic renal mass
- MRI has a limited role in the evaluation of a cystic renal mass. The key advantage of MRI is more accurate enhancement characterization, as MRI does not suffer from the CT phenomenon of pseudoenhancement due to beam hardening from adjacent, densely enhancing renal parenchyma.
Renal cysts and cystic renal masses
- Simple renal cyst:
are extremely common, found in approximately 50% of patients over age 50. A simple renal cyst is an incidental lesion that requires no follow-up, even when large.- Renal sinus cyst:
Cysts in the renal sinus may be classified as parapelvic and peripelvic cysts. A parapelvic cyst is a renal cortical cyst that herniates into the renal sinus. These cysts are usually large but solitary. Peripelvic cysts, in contrast, are lymphatic in origin and usually small and multiple.- Hyperdense cyst:
A homogeneous renal cyst with an attenuation of >70 Hounsfield units on noncontrast imaging represents a benign hyperdense cyst, likely secondary to prior hemorrhage.- The Bosniak classification risk-stratifies cystic renal masses,
with increasing risk for cystic renal cell carcinoma with increasing Bosniak category. Classification is based on morphology, not size (except for hyperdense cysts in categories II and IIF).- Category I and II:
No risk of malignancy. No follow-up necessary.
- Category I
Water-attenuation cyst, with a hairline wall and no areas of enhancement.- Category II
Water-attenuation cyst containing a few (3 or fewer) hairline septa. May contain fine septal calcification. No enhancement.- Category IIF:
Small risk of malignancy. Imaging follow-up is needed.
- Category IIF
Multiple septa, with minimal smooth thickening (3 mm or less). May have thick and nodular mural calcification.- Category III and IV:
Surgical lesions, concerning for cystic renal cell carcinoma.
- Category III
Thickened, irregular walls or septa, with measurable enhancement.- Category IV
Distinguishing feature is enhancing nodular componentMulticystic renal disease and risk for renal neoplasm
- Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD):
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is responsible for 10% of patients on long-term dialysis. Patients typically present in their third to fourth decades, initially presenting with upper abdominal pain and a clinical course of progressive renal failure. The kidneys may become so enlarged as to be palpable.- Acquired cystic kidney disease (due to end-stage kidney disease):
Dialysis-associated cystic renal disease does have an increased risk of renal cell carcinoma (~2-3% prevalence, compared to 1/10,000 prevalence in the general population).Renal infection and inflammation
- Pyelonephritis:
Pyelonephritis is infection of renal parenchyma and is the most common bacterial infection of the kidney. The bacteria usually are ascending from the bladder. A striated nephrogram describes linear lucencies extending from the renal cortex to the medulla on a contrast-enhanced study. The differential diagnosis for a striated nephrogram is similar to that of a wedge-shaped perfusion defect and includes:
- Pyelonephritis.
- Renal infarct.
- Renal vein thrombosis or vasculitis.
- Renal contusion (typically focal).
- Acute urinary obstruction.
- Renal tumor (especially lymphoma if infiltrative).
- Radiation nephritis.
- Pyonephrosis:
is the infection of an obstructed collecting system and is colloquially referred to as "pus under pressure." Treatment is emergent percutaneous nephrostomy.- Renal abscess:
is a localized purulent collection within the kidney that most commonly results from coalescence of small microabscesses in the setting of acute bacterial pyelonephritis. An abscess may simulate a cystic renal mass.- Emphysematous pyelonephritis:
is a severe renal infection characterized by gas replacing renal parenchyma, caused both by gas-forming organisms and renal infarction.- Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis:
is a chronic renal infection due to obstructing calculi, leading to replacement of renal parenchyma with fibrofatty inflammatory tissue.- Renal tuberculosis:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection of the renal parenchyma results from hematogenous dissemination. Active pulmonary TB is present in approximately 10%. Although initial renal TB infection typically involves both kidneys, chronic changes tend to be unilateral.- Nephrolithiasis and ureterolithiasis:
Nephro/ureterolithiasis is a common problem that presents with renal colic. Hematuria is usually present, but may be absent if the stone is completely obstructing.- Papillary necrosis:
is necrosis and sloughing of renal papillary tissue, which clinically can cause gross hematuria and may lead to chronic renal insufficiency. There are numerous causes of papillary necrosis, most commonly NSAIDs, sickle cell anemia, diabetes, and renal vein thrombosis. The commonly used POSTCARD mnemonic may be helpful to remember all causes: Pyelonephritis. Obstruction. Sickle cell disease. Tuberculosis. Cirrhosis. Analgesics (NSAIDS). Renal vein thrombosis. Diabetes mellitus.Renal imaging patterns
- Delayed (prolonged) nephrogram:
A unilateral prolonged nephrogram can be due to acute ureteral obstruction, renal vein thrombosis, and renal artery stenosis. Bilateral prolonged nephrograms can be seen in bilateral obstruction, contrast nephropathy, systemic hypotension, and myeloma kidney.- Medullary nephrocalcinosis:
represents calcification of the renal medullary pyramids, usually with preserved renal function. Medullary nephrocalcinosis can be caused by:
- Hypercalcemic state (e.g., hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, etc).
- Medullary sponge kidney (cystic dilation of distal collecting ducts; may be unilateral or segmental).
- Distal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis (RTA).
- Furosemide therapy in a child.
- Cortical nephrocalcinosis:
Causes of cortical nephrocalcinosis include:
- Acute cortical necrosis.
- Chronic glomerulonephritis.
- Chronic transplant rejection.
- Hyperoxaluria.
- Alport syndrome (hereditary nephropathy and deafness).
- Cortical necrosis:
Cortical necrosis is a rare form of renal injury from acute ischemic necrosis of the renal cortex. Cortical necrosis may lead to cortical nephrocalcinosis. Chronic renal failure develops in up to 50% of patients.- Extracalyceal contrast medium:
Contrast shouldn't normally be seen beyond the calyces on excretory urogram.
- Papillary necrosis,
- tubular ectasia, and
- calyceal diverticulum may cause this appearance.
Renal trauma
The OIS scale from the AAST is the most commonly used system for classifying renal trauma. It is a surgical classification but correlates well with the CT findings.
- Grade I injury
is by far the most common type of renal injury (95%) and describes a renal contusion or subcapsular hematoma. Treatment is conservative.- Grade II injury
is a superficial laceration (<1 cm), without urinary extravasation. Treatment is typically conservative. A potential pitfall of a- grade III injury
is that a clot at the collecting system may prevent urinary extravasation initially, but urinary extravasation may occur later as the clot is lysed by urinary urokinase.- Grade IV
is a deep laceration that extends into the collecting system (causing urinary extravasation), or injury to the renal artery or vein with contained hemorrhage. Urinary extravasation is typically treated with surgical repair to prevent later development of urinoma or abscess formation. Vascular grade IV injury can be treated endovascularly.- Grade V
is a shattered kidney, or avulsion of the renal hilum. Treatment is variable but typically surgical.- Page kidney
(named after the doctor who performed experiments wrapping animal kidneys with cellophane) is a rare cause of secondary hypertension due to prior trauma.Ureter
Overview of ureteral imaging
- CT urography (CTU) indications and protocol:
The goal of CT urography (CTU) is to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. The key to successful imaging is to maximally distend and opacify the ureters and bladder. One of the most common indications for CTU is for the evaluation of microscopic or macroscopic hematuria. In adults ≥40 years of age, CTU is performed as a three-phase exam: Unenhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis. Nephrographic phase through the kidneys (100 seconds after IV contrast administration). Excretory phase of the abdomen and pelvis (15 minutes after IV contrast). A split-bolus, dual-phase exam decreases radiation exposure in patients under age 40: Unenhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis. Combined nephrographic/excretory phase (8 minutes delay after first IV contrast bolus and 100 seconds after the second bolus).Malignant ureteral disease
- Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC):
Although upper-tract malignancy is rare, transitional cell carcinoma is the most common ureteral neoplasm. The typical imaging appearance is a single filling defect on CT urography; however, multiple filling defects may be seen in 40%. Less commonly, there may be focal thickening of the ureteral wall. Given the propensity of transitional cell carcinoma for multifocality, the bladder should be evaluated for a synchronous mass.Benign ureteral masses
- Fibroepithelial polyp
- Urothelial papilloma
- Inverted papilloma
Inflammatory and infectious ureteral disease
- Ureteritis cystica
is a benign response to chronic urinary tract inflammation, such as chronic infection or stone disease. Several small subepithelial cysts are found unilaterally in the proximal third of the ureter and renal pelvis. Ureteritis cystica does not have any malignant potential.- Leukoplakia (squamous metaplasia)
also known as squamous metaplasia, is a rare urothelial inflammatory condition named for the characteristic white patch that is produced. Leukoplakia is not thought to be premalignant when the renal collecting system is involved, although there is an association between squamous cell carcinoma and bladder leukoplakia.- Malacoplakia
is an inflammatory condition associated with chronic urinary tract infection (usually Escherichia coli) that is typically seen in middle-aged women. It is not premalignant.- Ureteral tuberculosis
Multifocal ureteral stenoses are suggestive of ureteral tuberculosis, even more so if there is also evidence of renal tuberculosis (parenchymal calcification and scarring) and/or bladder tuberculosis (small capacity bladder with a thickened wall).Differential diagnosis of a ureteral filling defect
- The primary concern of a ureteral filling defect on CT urography is ureteral malignancy.
- Ureteral malignancy, of which transitional cell carcinoma is by far the most common.
- Ureteral calculus, which is almost always visible on pre-contrast images.
- Blood clot.
- Malacoplakia (multiple flat defects).
- Leukoplakia.
- Infectious debris (e.g., a mycetoma).
- Sloughed renal papilla.
- Benign ureteral mass (e.g., fibroepithelial polyp).
Structural ureteral lesions
- Ureteropelvic junction obstruction (UPJ obstruction)
Obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) can be either primary or secondary to infection, stones, or prior surgery. Primary UPJ obstruction may be due to a congenital aperistaltic segment of ureter, high insertion of the ureter on the renal pelvis, or crossing vessels causing extrinsic compression. The key imaging finding is a dilated renal pelvis with a normal caliber ureter.Bladder
- Bladder stones.
- Bladder transitional cell carcinoma (TCC):
is by far the most common bladder cancer.- Bladder adenocarcinoma:
is rare but is associated with a urachal remnant.Bladder trauma
- CT cystography
is the standard test to evaluate for suspected bladder rupture.- Extraperitoneal bladder rupture:
is defined as rupture of the bladder outside of the peritoneal space. Extraperitoneal bladder rupture is at least twice as common as intraperitoneal rupture.- Intraperitoneal bladder rupture:
occurs with disruption of the bladder dome and peritoneum, causing resultant extravasation of urine into the peritoneal space.Urethra
Male urethral anatomy
- Prostatic urethra (posterior urethra):
courses within the prostate and is lined with transitional epithelium.- Membranous urethra (posterior urethra):
is the shortest, least mobile urethral segment.- Bulbous urethra (anterior urethra):
is the site of drainage of Cowper's glands.- Penile urethra (anterior urethra):
is the longest urethral segment. It is lined with squamous epithelium.Imaging of the male urethra
- Retrograde urethrogram (RUG):
provides excellent evaluation of the anterior urethra and may be performed to evaluate for suspected urethral injury, stricture, or fistula.- Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG):
best evaluates the posterior urethra and is typically performed for evaluation of bladder and voiding function.- Urethral stricture:
secondary to sexually transmitted disease (most commonly chronic urethritis from Neisseria gonorrhoea) occur most commonly in the bulbous urethra. A complication of chronic urethral infection is a periurethral abscess, which may result in a urethroperineal fistula. Post-traumatic saddle injury strictures also tend to occur in the bulbous urethra.- Urethral trauma:
In the setting of trauma, if there is blood at the meatus, painful urination, or inability to void, a RUG should be performed emergently. If the RUG shows evidence of urethral injury, a suprapubic catheter is typically placed.Female urethra
- Anatomy of the female urethra:
is much shorter than the male urethra. Unlike the male urethra, the female urethra is not divided into discrete segments.- Urethral diverticulum:
Urethral diverticulum presents clinically with postvoid dribbling, urethral pain, and dyspareunia. Often, however, the symptoms may be vague and nonspecific.MRI of the prostate
- From an imaging standpoint, there are two components to the prostate that can be resolved on MRI: The peripheral zone and the central gland. The central gland refers to both the central zone and the transition zone, as they cannot be distinguished on MRI.
- Prostate cancer:
MRI is able to clearly delineate the prostatic zonal anatomy (central gland versus peripheral zone) with T2-weighted sequences. Imaging is enhanced with an endorectal coil. The typical MRI appearance of prostate cancer is a T2 hypointense region within the T2 hyperintense peripheral zone.T-staging
- T1:
Tumor apparent by biopsy only.- T2:
Tumor confined within the prostate.
- T2a: <50% of one lobe;
- T2b: >50% of one lobe;
- T2c: Tumor involves both lobes.
- T3:
Tumor extends through the prostate capsule. May involve seminal vesicles.- T4:
Tumor invades adjacent structures other than seminal vesicles.N-staging
- Any regional lymph node metastasis is N1; however, extra-pelvic nodes are M1a.
M-staging
- M0:
No metastases.- M1a:
Nonregional lymph nodes;- M1b:
Bone metastasis;- M1c:
Other metastasis.MRI of the uterus and adnexa
Uterine anatomy
- T2-weighted MRI can distinguish the three layers of the uterus.
- Endometrial stripe:
Hyperintense on T2.- Junctional zone (first zone of myometrium):
T2 hypointense. The hypointense T2 signal is due to the extremely compact smooth muscle. The junctional zone should measure ≤12 mm: Thickening of the junctional zone is seen in adenomyosis.- Outer myometrium:
Relatively T2 hypointense, although less so than junctional zone.Benign uterine disease
- Adenomyosis
represents ectopic endometrial glands within the myometrium. In contrast to endometriosis, the ectopic endometrial tissue seen in adenomyosis is nonfunctioning.- Leiomyoma (fibroid):
A leiomyoma, commonly known as a fibroid, is an extremely common benign tumor of smooth muscle, which affects up to 40% of reproductive-age women.Malignant uterine disease
- Endometrial carcinoma
is the most common female gynecologic malignancy and is thought to be caused by prolonged estrogen exposure. Specific risk factors include nulliparity, hormone replacement, and Tamoxifen therapy.The FIGO (International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics) staging of endometrial carcinoma
was revised in 2010.
- Stage I:
Tumor confined to the uterus.
- IA: <50% myometrial invasion;
- IB: >50% myometrial invasion.
- Stage II:
Spread to the cervical stroma, but tumor still contained within the uterus. Involvement of the endocervical glands only is stage I.- Stage III:
Spread to adnexa or uterine serosa (IIIA), vagina (IIIB), pelvic lymph nodes (IIIC1), or para-aortic lymph nodes (IIIC2). Prognosis is worse with para-aortic nodes, even in the absence of pelvic adenopathy.- Stage IVA:
Spread to bladder or bowel mucosa.- Stage IVB:
Distant metastases or inguinal lymph node spread.MRI of the cervix
Normal cervical T2 zonal anatomy
- Endocervical canal:
T2 hyperintense due to mucin, analogous to uterine endometrium.- Cervical mucosa:
Intermediate T2 signal intensity.- Inner cervical stroma:
Very hypointense on T2, analogous to the uterine junctional zone. Unlike the uterine junctional zone, however, the decreased T2 signal is due to compact fibrous tissue, not smooth muscle. The superior aspect of the inner cervical stroma is continuous with junctional zone of the uterus.
- Cervical carcinoma:
is the third most common gynecologic malignancy, with a steep decline in prevalence over the past 50 years due to screening with Pap smears.The FIGO (International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics) staging of cervical cancer
was revised in 2010. The new staging takes into account lymph node involvement.
- Stage I:
Confined to cervix or uterus.
- IA: Microscopic lesion.
- IB: Clinically visible lesion.
- Stage IIA:
Spread to upper 2/3 vagina, without parametrial invasion. Typically treated surgically.- Stage IIB:
Parametrial invasion. Typically treated non-surgically (e.g., brachytherapy).- Stage IIIA:
Spread to lower vagina. Stage IIIB: Pelvic sidewall extension, hydronephrosis, or pelvic nodal involvement.- Stage IVA:
Spread to bladder or rectum;- Stage IVB:
Distant metastasis.Congenital uterine anomalies
- Septate uterus:
is caused by incomplete resorption of the septum of fused Müllerian ducts. A septate uterus has a single external fundus but a fibrous or muscular septation dividing two endometrial canals. Infertility is more common in women with septate uterus compared to bicornuate uterus. Metroplasty (resection of the septum) can be performed hysteroscopically if the septum is fibrous, or via an open approach if the septum is muscular.- Bicornuate uterus:
Bicornuate uterus is due to incomplete fusion of the Müllerian ducts. A bicornuate uterus describes a partially split uterus with two separate uterine fundi. In contrast to a septate uterus, the fundus of a bicornuate uterus pinches inwards >15 mm. If treated, metroplasty must be performed transabdominally, which is a more invasive procedure compared to hysteroscopic metroplasty.MRI of the adnexa
- Endometriosis
represents ectopic foci of endometrial tissue that are hormonally responsive and therefore may be composed of blood products of varying ages.- Mature cystic teratoma:
Also known as a dermoid cyst, mature cystic teratoma is the most common benign ovarian neoplasm in young women. It is composed of differentiated tissue from at least two embryonic cell layers. A mature cystic teratoma is typically a unilocular cystic structure filled with sebaceous material, hair follicles, and other tissues. Less commonly, a mature teratoma may appear as a heterogeneous mass or may be a solid fat-containing mass.- Ovarian cancer:
Ovarian cancer is the second most common female pelvic malignancy but is one of the most lethal malignancies as 65% of patients present with advanced disease.Neuroimaging